NEED DISCUSSION ASAP
Part of the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States says that Congress shall make no laws abridging the freedom of speech. However, there are laws that prohibit the use of certain offensive language on television. How can such laws exist in view of the First Amendment protection of freedom of speech? If Congress and the Courts can ignore the specific language of the Constitution as to free speech, can they ignore other parts of the Constitution? (150 Words)
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